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Free Board's Jurisprudence Examination Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Board's Jurisprudence Examination practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1A patient discovers an injury from dental treatment one year after the procedure, with no fraud alleged. What is the ordinary filing period measured from discovery under Oregon law?

    1. A. One year from discovery, subject to the outside limit
    2. B. Two years from discovery, subject to the outside limit
    3. C. Three years from discovery, subject to the outside limit
    4. D. Five years from discovery, subject to the outside limit

    Answer: B

    Explanation: ORS 12.110(4) says the action "shall be commenced within two years" from discovery or when reasonable care should have discovered it. The same subsection generally imposes a five-year outside limit from treatment; that limit is not the discovery period.

    Reference: Oregon Revised Statutes — ORS 12.110

  2. 2A patient requests punitive damages against an Oregon dentist for treatment within the licensed dental scope. The dentist acted without malice. What does ORS 31.740 provide?

    1. A. Punitive damages are available because dentistry is excluded.
    2. B. Punitive damages are barred only if compensatory damages fail.
    3. C. Punitive damages are available whenever ordinary negligence exists.
    4. D. Punitive damages are barred under the stated conditions.

    Answer: D

    Explanation: ORS 31.740 says "Punitive damages may not be awarded against a health practitioner if" the listed requirements are met. Dentists are listed, and subsection (2) requires licensed-scope conduct without malice. The question states those conditions.

    Reference: Oregon Revised Statutes — ORS 31.740(1)(h), (2)

  3. 3An Oregon minor seeks ordinary dental diagnosis from a Board-licensed dentist without parental consent. What is the youngest age at which ORS 109.640(4) gives the minor this independent consent authority?

    1. A. Thirteen years of age
    2. B. Fourteen years of age
    3. C. Fifteen years of age
    4. D. Sixteen years of age

    Answer: C

    Explanation: ORS 109.640(4) says "A minor 15 years of age or older may give consent" without a parent or guardian to dental diagnosis or treatment by a Board-licensed dentist. The younger ages do not meet that threshold; sixteen is above it but is not the youngest qualifying age.

    Reference: Oregon Revised Statutes — ORS 109.640

  4. 4A dentist's office needs to use a patient's protected health information for its own treatment, and the patient has signed no separate authorization. What does ORS 192.558 permit on these facts?

    1. A. Use it for its own treatment without seeking a separate patient authorization.
    2. B. Use it for its own treatment only with a new authorization from the patient.
    3. C. Use it for its own treatment only under a court disclosure order.
    4. D. Use it for its own treatment only when another statute requires disclosure.

    Answer: A

    Explanation: ORS 192.558(2)(a) permits use or disclosure without authorization "For the providers or plans own treatment, payment or health care operations." The question concerns the provider's own treatment, so an additional authorization is not required by this provision.

    Reference: Oregon Revised Statutes — ORS 192.558

  5. 5A dentist is considering treatment without consent for a child who is a ward of the court. Which circumstances satisfy ORS 418.307's treatment exception?

    1. A. Elective treatment is deferrable, and obtaining agency or guardian consent is readily practicable.
    2. B. Elective treatment is deferrable, and obtaining agency or guardian consent is highly impractical.
    3. C. Prompt treatment prevents suffering, and obtaining agency or guardian consent is readily practicable.
    4. D. Prompt treatment prevents suffering, and obtaining agency or guardian consent is highly impractical.

    Answer: D

    Explanation: ORS 418.307 requires that "prompt action is reasonably necessary" to avoid unnecessary suffering or effect a more effective cure and that it be "impossible or highly impractical to obtain consent." Both conditions are present only in D. The mere status of wardship does not by itself authorize routine treatment without consent.

    Reference: Oregon Revised Statutes — ORS 418.307

  6. 6A dental-license applicant has a criminal conviction. What assessment may the Oregon licensing board make under ORS 670.280 rather than denying solely because the conviction exists?

    1. A. Treat the conviction itself as conclusive proof of unfitness, regardless of underlying dental standards.
    2. B. Evaluate the conviction's underlying facts and intervening circumstances against dental standards.
    3. C. Consider only the imposed sentence and disregard the specific facts supporting the conviction.
    4. D. Treat sentence completion as conclusive proof of fitness without evaluating intervening circumstances.

    Answer: B

    Explanation: ORS 670.280(2) says a board "may not deny, suspend or revoke" a professional license solely for a conviction, but may consider the facts supporting it and intervening circumstances against occupation-specific standards. B captures that permitted assessment; the other approaches omit the required individualized relationship.

    Reference: Oregon Revised Statutes — ORS 670.280(2)

  7. 7An expanded-practice dental hygienist treats an eligible nursing-home resident who cannot obtain regular hygiene care because of infirmity. The proposed service is within hygiene scope and the permit authorizes it. What dentist supervision does ORS 680.205 require?

    1. A. Direct supervision by a dentist in the treatment room
    2. B. Indirect supervision by a dentist on the premises
    3. C. General supervision by an authorizing dentist
    4. D. No dentist supervision for this permitted service

    Answer: D

    Explanation: ORS 680.205(1) permits an expanded-practice hygienist to render authorized hygiene-scope services "without the supervision of a dentist" to listed eligible patients, including qualifying nursing-home residents. Assistant-supervision definitions do not govern this permit.

    Reference: Oregon Revised Statutes — ORS 680.205(1)(a)(A)

  8. 8The Board finds that an Oregon dentist with an impairment meets its referral criteria for the Health Professionals' Services Program. Which disposition may the Board choose under OAR 818-013-0005?

    1. A. Refer the eligible licensee to HPSP in lieu of public discipline.
    2. B. Refer any dental-office worker to HPSP without licensee status.
    3. C. Issue public discipline before an HPSP referral can be considered.
    4. D. Dismiss all patient-safety concerns automatically upon HPSP referral.

    Answer: A

    Explanation: OAR 818-013-0005(2) limits referrals to Board licensees who meet referral criteria and says the Board "may refer a licensee to the HPSP in lieu of public discipline." Referral is discretionary and does not automatically erase safety oversight.

    Reference: Oregon Board of Dentistry Dental Practice Act — OAR 818-013-0005(2)(a)

  9. 9An Oregon dentist uses a single oral agent solely to achieve anxiolysis. Which anesthesia permit is required?

    1. A. Minimal Sedation Permit
    2. B. Moderate Sedation Permit
    3. C. General Anesthesia Permit
    4. D. No anesthesia permit

    Answer: D

    Explanation: OAR 818-026-0030(7) states, “When a dentist utilizes a single oral agent to achieve anxiolysis only, no anesthesia permit is required.” D is correct.

    Reference: Dental Practice Act (2025) — OAR 818-026-0030(7)

  10. 10Under Oregon's definition of direct supervision for dental assistants, where must the dentist remain during the procedure?

    1. A. Away from the office after authorizing the procedure by standing order
    2. B. On the premises but outside the treatment room
    3. C. In the dental treatment room
    4. D. At another usual place of practice while the procedure is performed

    Answer: C

    Explanation: OAR 818-042-0010(4) defines direct supervision to require that the dentist “remain in the dental treatment room while the procedures are performed.” A and D describe the absence allowed by general supervision, while B corresponds to indirect supervision; therefore C is correct.

    Reference: Dental Practice Act (2025) — OAR 818-042-0010(4)

Topics in this practice bank

These topics describe the available practice for Board's Jurisprudence Examination. Review the examination outline and its sources for scope and allocation details.

  • ORS chapter 12 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 25 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 30 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 31 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 40 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 107 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 109 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 146 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 183 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 192 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 408 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 413 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 418 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 419 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 433 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 441 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 670 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 676 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 679 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • ORS chapter 680 — Dental Practice Act provisions
  • OAR chapter 818, division 1
  • OAR chapter 818, division 12
  • OAR chapter 818, division 13
  • OAR chapter 818, division 15
  • OAR chapter 818, division 21
  • OAR chapter 818, division 26
  • OAR chapter 818, division 35
  • OAR chapter 818, division 38
  • OAR chapter 818, division 42

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These are independent study questions, not actual examination items. For examination requirements and official information, view Board's Jurisprudence Examination details.