Free Jurisprudence Dental Hygiene Examination Practice Questions

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Jurisprudence Dental Hygiene Examination practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

1. 1A Georgia dental hygiene applicant has an old felony conviction that does not directly relate to dental hygiene. The Board considers denying licensure solely because of that conviction. What does the general licensing statute require?

   1. A. The Board may deny solely for the conviction because every felony is automatically disqualifying.
   2. B. The Board may deny solely for the conviction if it occurred in another state's court.
   3. C. The Board may not deny solely for the conviction unless it directly relates to the occupation.
   4. D. The Board may deny solely for the conviction whenever the applicant requests a hearing.

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The enactment limits this ground unless the felony "directly relates to the occupation for which the license is sought or held" (O.C.G.A. § 43-1-19(q)(1)). The assumed unrelated conviction alone cannot justify the denial; the location of conviction and hearing request do not replace the occupational nexus.

   Reference: Georgia Senate Bill 114, signed legislation (2021) — SB 114, page 1, printed lines 13-16

2. 2A former dental patient has died, and an executor has been appointed for the estate. Who has priority under Georgia's health-records statute to request a copy of the patient's record?

   1. A. The surviving spouse of the deceased patient
   2. B. The surviving adult child of the deceased patient
   3. C. The surviving parent of the deceased patient
   4. D. The appointed executor of the patient's estate

   Answer: D

   Explanation: The statute names "The executor, administrator, or temporary administrator for the decedent's estate if such person has been appointed" as the first eligible requester. The spouse, child and parent follow only if the preceding category is unavailable (O.C.G.A. § 31-33-2(a)(2)).

   Reference: Georgia Code, Title 31, Chapter 33 (Georgia Secretary of State copy) — O.C.G.A. § 31-33-2(a)(2)(A)-(D)

3. 3Under Georgia Board rules, which event can initiate a dental hygiene investigation?

   1. A. Only issuance of a court order
   2. B. Only filing of a patient lawsuit
   3. C. The Board's own motion or receipt of a written complaint
   4. D. Only filing of a criminal charge

   Answer: C

   Explanation: Rule 150-4-.01(1) says proceedings may begin “upon its own motion or upon receipt of a written complaint.”

   Reference: Georgia Board Dentistry Rules (2026) — Rule 150-4-.01(1)

4. 4A hygienist holds only a Georgia dental-hygiene faculty license and teaches at an accredited school. Where may that licensee perform dental hygiene procedures under that license?

   1. A. On the employing school's primary campus while performing faculty teaching duties
   2. B. At an affiliated private office while treating the school's referral patients
   3. C. At a school-approved satellite clinic while treating supervised students
   4. D. At an off-campus practice site while remaining on the faculty payroll

   Answer: A

   Explanation: Rule 150-7-.02(1)(f) limits faculty-license practice to the school premises for teaching, and paragraph (k) says the licensee "may not establish practice outside of the physical primary campus" without an unrestricted Georgia hygiene license. An affiliated office, satellite clinic or payroll status does not extend a faculty-only license beyond that boundary.

   Reference: Rules of Georgia Board of Dentistry, Department 150 — Rule 150-7-.02(1)(f)

5. 5How long must the dentist retain a copy, recording, or specification of an advertisement after its last use?

   1. A. 30 days
   2. B. 6 months
   3. C. 1 year
   4. D. 3 years

   Answer: C

   Explanation: Rule 150-10-.01(2) requires retention “for at least one year following the last appearance or use.”

   Reference: GA R&R - GAC - Chapter 150-10 ADVERTISING — Rule 150-10-.01(2)

6. 6A Georgia dentist intends to provide moderate enteral conscious sedation. Which permit category does Rule 150-13-.01(4) identify for that sedation level and route?

   1. A. A moderate parenteral permit for the dentist's sedation plan.
   2. B. A moderate enteral permit for the dentist's sedation plan.
   3. C. A deep-sedation permit for the dentist's sedation plan.
   4. D. No sedation permit for the dentist's sedation plan.

   Answer: B

   Explanation: Rule 150-13-.01(4) says "No dentist shall administer conscious sedation at the moderate level in Georgia" without a credentials-based permit and identifies "Moderate Enteral Conscious Sedation or Moderate Parenteral Conscious Sedation." The intended route is enteral, so the named matching category is moderate enteral. Paragraph (1) separately exempts minimal sedation from the conscious-sedation permit requirement.

   Reference: Rules of Georgia Board of Dentistry, Department 150 — Rule 150-13-.01(4)

7. 7A Georgia dental hygienist is served with a Board notice of hearing in a contested disciplinary case. What is the latest time allowed by Rule 150-16-.02 for filing an answer with the Board?

   1. A. Within 7 days after service of the notice of hearing
   2. B. Within 10 days after service of the notice of hearing
   3. C. Within 14 days after service of the notice of hearing
   4. D. Within 30 days after service of the notice of hearing

   Answer: C

   Explanation: Rule 150-16-.02 requires an answer "within fourteen (14) days after service of the notice of hearing." The deadline runs from service, and the rule specifies 14 days rather than 7, 10 or 30.

   Reference: Rules of Georgia Board of Dentistry, Department 150 — Rule 150-16-.02, Answer

8. 8The Board mails a hearing notice by certified mail to a hygienist's last address of record. It returns marked 'unclaimed,' and diligent efforts cannot locate the hygienist. What does Rule 150-18-.01 provide for service?

   1. A. The Board must restart service only when a new address is reported.
   2. B. The Board may treat the respondent's former employer as service agent.
   3. C. The Board must publish the notice before any service can be effective.
   4. D. The Executive Director or designee becomes the agent for service.

   Answer: D

   Explanation: After undeliverable certified mail and diligent unsuccessful efforts to locate the licensee, Rule 150-18-.01(3) says the Executive Director or designee "shall be deemed the agent of service"; service there is deemed service on the licensee. The other proposed recipients or publication steps are not this rule's specified result.

   Reference: Rules of Georgia Board of Dentistry, Department 150 — Rule 150-18-.01(3), By the Board

9. 9After receiving notice of a proposed suspension for federal education-loan default, a hygienist makes a timely written request to appear before the Board. What happens to the suspension pending that appearance?

   1. A. The suspension takes effect and can be reversed only afterward.
   2. B. The suspension is stayed until the licensee appears before the Board.
   3. C. The suspension converts automatically to a private reprimand.
   4. D. The suspension becomes final while the Board schedules the appearance.

   Answer: B

   Explanation: Rule 150-25-.01(4) says that if the request to appear is timely, "the suspension of the license shall be stayed pending the licensee's appearance before the Board." It neither takes immediate effect nor automatically converts to another sanction.

   Reference: Rules of Georgia Board of Dentistry, Department 150 — Rule 150-25-.01(4), Federal Student Loan Default

10. 10A compliance officer reviews four dental-office disclosures. Which fact pattern fits the wrongful-disclosure offense described in HIPAA § 1177(a)(3)?

    1. A. A clerk knowingly discloses identifiable patient information in violation of the HIPAA part.
    2. B. A clerk inadvertently discloses identifiable patient information in violation of the HIPAA part.
    3. C. A clerk knowingly discloses identifiable patient information as allowed by the HIPAA part.
    4. D. A clerk knowingly discloses deidentified practice statistics under the HIPAA part.

    Answer: A

    Explanation: Section 1177(a) describes an "OFFENSE" by a person who acts "knowingly and in violation of this part" and discloses individually identifiable health information. A has all three elements. B is inadvertent rather than knowing; C is authorized rather than in violation; D lacks individually identifiable health information.

    Reference: Public Law 104-191 (HIPAA) — Public Law 104-191, § 262(a), Social Security Act § 1177(a)