Free Nevada Law Examination Practice Questions

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Nevada Law Examination practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

1. 1On what regular date does a Nevada pharmacist certificate expire?

   1. A. June 30 of each odd-numbered year
   2. B. October 31 of each odd-numbered year
   3. C. October 31 of each even-numbered year
   4. D. December 31 of each even-numbered year

   Answer: B

   Explanation: NRS 639.180 states that a pharmacist certificate expires October 31 of each odd-numbered year. Controlling text: “expires on October 31 of each odd-numbered year.”

   Reference: NRS: CHAPTER 639 - PHARMACISTS AND PHARMACY — NRS 639.180

2. 2How many refills may be authorized for a Nevada Schedule II controlled-substance prescription?

   1. A. One
   2. B. Two
   3. C. None
   4. D. Five

   Answer: C

   Explanation: NRS 453.256 states that a Schedule II prescription must not be refilled. Controlling text: “A prescription for a substance included in schedule II must not be refilled.”

   Reference: Nrs 453 — NRS 453.256

3. 3A donated prescription drug expires before it can be dispensed. What must the participating pharmacy do?

   1. A. Destroy it
   2. B. Transfer an unexpired eligible donation to another program participant
   3. C. Return a recalled product through the applicable recall process
   4. D. Quarantine a product while suspected adulteration is investigated

   Answer: A

   Explanation: NAC 453B.100 requires destruction when a donated prescription drug expires before dispensing. Controlling text: “destroy the drug.”

   Reference: NAC: CHAPTER 639 - PHARMACISTS AND PHARMACY — NAC 453B.100

4. 4A Nevada pharmacist is preparing to furnish an opioid antagonist under the chapter's procedures. What is the minimum specific continuing education required before furnishing?

   1. A. One ACPE-approved unit on antagonist use and recipient counseling.
   2. B. Two ACPE-approved units on antagonist use and recipient counseling.
   3. C. Three ACPE-approved units on antagonist use and recipient counseling.
   4. D. Four ACPE-approved units on antagonist use and recipient counseling.

   Answer: A

   Explanation: NAC 453C.100 requires the pharmacist, before furnishing, to "complete at least one continuing education unit approved by the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education" on antagonist use and recipient counseling. The question asks for the minimum, so larger numbers are not the required threshold.

   Reference: Nevada Administrative Code Chapter 453C — NAC 453C.100

5. 5Who may retail a nonprescription nasal inhaler containing a central-nervous-system stimulant in Nevada?

   1. A. A registered pharmacist acting in good faith for medicinal use
   2. B. Any cashier after age verification
   3. C. Only the product manufacturer
   4. D. A technician without pharmacist involvement

   Answer: A

   Explanation: NAC 454.030 limits such retail sales to a registered pharmacist acting in good faith for medicinal use. Controlling text: “may be sold at retail only by a registered pharmacist when such sales are made in good faith for medicinal use.”

   Reference: Nac 454 — NAC 454.030

6. 6A manufacturer labels a commercial container of a Schedule II controlled substance for pharmacy supply. Which schedule symbol matches the federal commercial-container rule?

   1. A. C-III
   2. B. C-II
   3. C. C-IV
   4. D. C-V

   Answer: B

   Explanation: 21 CFR 1302.03 identifies the Schedule II symbol as "CII or C-II." The alternatives designate Schedules III, IV, and V, so C-II is the symbol for this container.

   Reference: 21 CFR Part 1302 (eCFR) — 21 CFR 1302.03(a), (c)

7. 7A supplier returns a DEA Form 222 because a purchaser altered it. What must the purchaser do before that Schedule II order can be filled?

   1. A. Initial the alteration and resubmit the same order form.
   2. B. Attach an explanation and resubmit the same order form.
   3. C. Ask the supplier to endorse the altered order form.
   4. D. Prepare a new DEA Form 222 to replace the defective one.

   Answer: D

   Explanation: 21 CFR 1305.15(d) states: "A defective DEA Form 222 may not be corrected; it must be replaced by a new DEA Form 222 for the order to be filled." Initialing, explaining, or endorsing the altered form does not cure the defect.

   Reference: 21 CFR Part 1305 (eCFR) — 21 CFR 1305.15(a), (d)

8. 8A dispensing practitioner expects transfers to other registered practitioners to exceed 5% of all controlled-substance dosage units distributed and dispensed that calendar year. What additional federal registration is required?

   1. A. Registration to manufacture controlled substances.
   2. B. Registration to distribute controlled substances.
   3. C. Registration to dispense controlled substances.
   4. D. Registration to reverse distribute controlled substances.

   Answer: B

   Explanation: 21 CFR 1307.11(b) says a dispensing practitioner anticipating distributions over five percent "shall obtain a registration to distribute controlled substances." The practitioner already has dispensing registration; manufacturing and reverse distribution are different registered activities.

   Reference: 21 CFR Part 1307 (eCFR) — 21 CFR 1307.11(b)

9. 9A regulated retail seller totals one purchaser's pseudoephedrine-base purchases across transactions on a single calendar day. What is the maximum amount that may be sold that day under the federal rule?

   1. A. 2.4 grams of pseudoephedrine base.
   2. B. 3.6 grams of pseudoephedrine base.
   3. C. 7.5 grams of pseudoephedrine base.
   4. D. 9.0 grams of pseudoephedrine base.

   Answer: B

   Explanation: 21 CFR 1314.20(a) sets the per-purchaser daily ceiling at "3.6 grams of pseudoephedrine base" and prohibits selling more than that amount, regardless of transaction count. The question asks for the highest permitted daily amount; 2.4 is below that ceiling, while 7.5 and 9.0 are above it.

   Reference: 21 CFR Part 1314 (eCFR) — 21 CFR 1314.20(a)

10. 10A DEA registrant chooses an on-site method to destroy expired controlled substances. Which result must the destruction method achieve under the federal disposal standard?

    1. A. Render the substances non-saleable.
    2. B. Render the substances non-dispensable.
    3. C. Render the substances non-identifiable.
    4. D. Render the substances non-retrievable.

    Answer: D

    Explanation: 21 CFR 1317.90(a) requires controlled substances destroyed by a registrant to be "rendered non-retrievable." A product could lose saleability, dispensability, or recognizable labeling while material remains retrievable, so those descriptions do not state the required result.

    Reference: 21 CFR Part 1317 (eCFR) — 21 CFR 1317.90(a)