Free QASP-S examination Practice Questions

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the QASP-S examination practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

1. 1A QASP-S is reviewing the DSM-5 criteria with a family whose 3-year-old is being evaluated for autism spectrum disorder. Which symptom pattern must be present, currently or by history, to meet DSM-5 criteria A and B?

   1. A. Deficits in all three social communication areas plus at least two of the four types of restricted, repetitive behavior
   2. B. Deficits in at least two of the three social communication areas plus at least two of the four types of restricted, repetitive behavior
   3. C. Deficits in all three social communication areas plus at least one of the four types of restricted, repetitive behavior
   4. D. Deficits in at least one of the three social communication areas plus all four of the types of restricted, repetitive behavior

   Answer: A

   Explanation: CDC's summary of DSM-5 states that "a child must have persistent deficits in each of three areas of social communication and interaction (see A.1. through A.3. below) plus at least two of four types of restricted, repetitive behaviors (see B.1. through B.4. below)". All three social communication areas are required, and two of the four restricted, repetitive behavior types are required. The other options change one of these two counts.

   Reference: Clinical Testing and Diagnosis for Autism Spectrum Disorder — Diagnostic Criteria for ASD, introductory paragraph

2. 2A QASP-S learns that a fellow QABA certificant has been listing a credential they do not hold on their business cards. The conduct involves no neglect, endangerment, safety, or legal consequences. Under the QABA Ethical Code of Conduct, what should the QASP-S do first?

   1. A. Document the violation in a confidential file and wait until the certificant's renewal period begins
   2. B. Report the violation to the QABA board within three business days, without speaking to the certificant
   3. C. Report the violation to local authorities and to the QABA board immediately, before any other step
   4. D. Inform the certificant of the violation, and report it to the QABA board if the conduct continues

   Answer: D

   Explanation: Code section 1.2 states: "If certificants are aware of any Code of Ethics violation by a fellow certificant, they are responsible for informing the certificant of the violation. If the unethical conduct continues, the certificant will report the violation to the QABA board." Immediate reporting to the board and local authorities is reserved for violations involving neglect, endangerment, safety, or legal consequences, and the three-business-day rule applies to certificants under investigation or facing legal charges.

   Reference: QABA Qualified Autism Services Practitioner-Supervisor (QASP-S) Candidate Handbook, QABA Ethical Code of Conduct — QABA Ethical Code of Conduct, 1.2 Ethical Responsibility

3. 3A QASP-S is teaching new staff how the four-term contingency extends the familiar antecedent-behavior-consequence (three-term) analysis. According to QABA's QASP-S coursework topic guidelines, which component is added to antecedent, behavior, and consequence to form the four-term contingency?

   1. A. The motivating operation
   2. B. The schedule of reinforcement
   3. C. The conditioned reinforcer
   4. D. The response class

   Answer: A

   Explanation: QABA's QASP-S coursework topic guidelines direct candidates to "Describe the relationship between motivating operations, antecedent, behavior, and consequence (four-term contingency)." The motivating operation is the term added in front of the antecedent-behavior-consequence sequence. Schedules, conditioned reinforcers, and response classes are separate concepts, not the fourth term.

   Reference: QASP-S Coursework Topic Guidelines — Core Principles of Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA), fifth guideline

4. 4A QASP-S explains to a new teacher how antecedent-based interventions reduce interfering behavior. According to AFIRM, what is the goal of an antecedent-based intervention?

   1. A. To deliver a consequence after each interfering behavior so that the behavior becomes less likely
   2. B. To reinforce the absence of the interfering behavior at the end of each fixed time interval
   3. C. To modify the environment or activity so the factors no longer elicit the interfering behavior
   4. D. To teach a new communicative response that produces the same reinforcer as the behavior

   Answer: C

   Explanation: AFIRM states: "The goal of ABI is to identify factors that are reinforcing the identified interfering behavior and then to modify the environment or activity so that the factors no longer elicit the interfering behavior." Delivering consequences, reinforcing the absence of behavior (DRO), and teaching a communicative response (FCT) are consequence-based or skill-based procedures rather than antecedent modifications.

   Reference: AFIRM EBP Brief Packet: Antecedent-Based Interventions (ABI) — What is ABI?

5. 5A QASP-S is revising a discrete trial objective that currently reads "Leo will learn colors." According to AFIRM, which elements should the refined learning objective clearly state?

   1. A. The setting, the instructor's name, and the date of review
   2. B. The learner's diagnosis, age, and level of support needed
   3. C. The reinforcer, the prompt type, and the session length
   4. D. The desired antecedent, behavior, and criterion for mastery

   Answer: D

   Explanation: AFIRM's DTT guide states: "The learning objective should clearly state the desired antecedent, behavior, and criterion for mastery." An objective that only names a general skill area states none of these, so the team cannot tell when or how the skill counts as mastered.

   Reference: AFIRM EBP Brief Packet: Discrete Trial Training (DTT) — Step-by-Step Practice Guide, Step 1: Planning for DTT, p. 25

6. 6A school team drafts a behavior intervention plan that lists the target behavior, the FBA summary, the hypothesized function, the replacement behavior, and the interventions. According to the IRIS Center, which component is still missing?

   1. A. A list of punishers ranked from mildest to most severe
   2. B. A schedule for permanent removal from class
   3. C. The student's full standardized test history
   4. D. A progress monitoring plan

   Answer: D

   Explanation: IRIS lists the components of a BIP as the target behavior, a summary of FBA data, the hypothesized function, the replacement behavior to be taught and reinforced, specific interventions, and "A progress monitoring plan". Without progress monitoring, the team cannot tell whether the plan is working.

   Reference: IRIS Center, Behavioral Intervention Plans (Elementary), Page 1: Behavioral Intervention Plans — List of BIP components

7. 7During a 30-minute observation, a technician tallies 15 instances of a student calling out. Following the IRIS Center's steps for frequency recording, what is the rate of calling out?

   1. A. 0.5 per minute
   2. B. 2 per minute
   3. C. 15 per minute
   4. D. 45 per minute

   Answer: A

   Explanation: IRIS instructs: "Calculate the rate by counting the total number of times the behavior occurred and dividing by the length of the observation." Fifteen responses divided by 30 minutes is 0.5 per minute. Two per minute results from dividing in the wrong direction (30 by 15), 15 per minute ignores the observation length, and 45 per minute adds the two numbers.

   Reference: IRIS Center Activity: Behavior Assessment: Frequency and Interval Recording — Overview, steps for an event or frequency tally, step 5

8. 8On each trial, a technician presents two toys side by side from a pool of eight, asks the child to choose one, allows brief access, and then presents a new pair. Which preference assessment format is this?

   1. A. Single stimulus
   2. B. Multiple-stimulus without replacement
   3. C. Free operant
   4. D. Paired-stimulus

   Answer: D

   Explanation: The article describes the format: "For the PS format, the implementer presents two items simultaneously from a pool of items and asks the participant to choose (e.g., Fisher et al., 1992)." The MSWO presents the whole array, the free-operant format leaves all items available, and the single-stimulus format presents one item at a time.

   Reference: Evaluation of the Rate of Problem Behavior Maintained by Different Reinforcers Across Preference Assessments — Introduction, description of preference assessment formats

9. 9A plan says to praise every correct academic response, but a technician praises only every other correct response. A supervisor explains that this is a procedural fidelity problem. What does procedural fidelity (treatment integrity) refer to?

   1. A. The extent to which a treatment is implemented as designed
   2. B. The extent to which two observers agree on recorded data
   3. C. The extent to which a client's behavior changes during treatment
   4. D. The extent to which a family finds the treatment acceptable

   Answer: A

   Explanation: The practitioner's guide states: "Procedural fidelity (PF), sometimes used interchangeably with the term treatment integrity (Han et al., 2022), is the extent to which a treatment is implemented as designed (Gresham, 1989; Vollmer et al., 2008)." Praising every other response departs from the written plan. Observer agreement, behavior change, and acceptability are separate concepts.

   Reference: A Practitioner's Guide to Measuring Procedural Fidelity — Introduction, definition of procedural fidelity

10. 10A 10-year-old client's intake file shows a well-established DSM-IV diagnosis of Asperger's disorder made years ago. The family asks what this diagnosis corresponds to under DSM-5. Which DSM-5 diagnosis applies?

    1. A. Social (pragmatic) communication disorder
    2. B. Autism spectrum disorder
    3. C. Intellectual developmental disorder
    4. D. Global developmental delay

    Answer: B

    Explanation: The DSM-5 criteria reproduced by CDC include the note: "Individuals with a well-established DSM-IV diagnosis of autistic disorder, Asperger's disorder, or pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified should be given the diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder." Asperger's disorder is therefore carried forward as autism spectrum disorder. Social (pragmatic) communication disorder is reserved for marked social communication deficits that do not otherwise meet ASD criteria, and the other two are separate neurodevelopmental diagnoses.

    Reference: Clinical Testing and Diagnosis for Autism Spectrum Disorder — Diagnostic Criteria for ASD, Note following criterion E