Free Indiana Jurisprudence Examination Practice Questions

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Indiana Jurisprudence Examination practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

1. 1What is the minimum age for initial licensure as an Indiana residential care administrator?

   1. A. 18
   2. B. 21
   3. C. 25
   4. D. 30

   Answer: B

   Explanation: IC 25-19-1-2.5(a)(1) states, "be at least twenty-one (21) years of age." Thus, the minimum age is 21.

   Reference: 2026 Indiana Code Html — IC 25-19-1-2.5(a)(1) [ZIP member: 2026-Indiana-Code-html/2026_Indiana_Code_HTML/25.html]

2. 2What must an RCA do with recommendations in reports concerning resident care and quality of life?

   1. A. Implement standards of departmental accountability
   2. B. Review and consider them for implementation
   3. C. Evaluate the budget's impact on resident care
   4. D. Timely correct IDOH-identified deficiencies

   Answer: B

   Explanation: IC 25-19-2-3(1) requires an administrator to "Review and consider for implementation ... recommendations contained in various reports to maintain or improve resident care and quality of life."

   Reference: 2026 Indiana Code Html — IC 25-19-2-3(1) [ZIP member: 2026-Indiana-Code-html/2026_Indiana_Code_HTML/25.html]

3. 3After a hearing, the Indiana board finds that an RCA knowingly violated a state rule regulating residential care administration. Under the general professional standards statute, what may the board do on that finding?

   1. A. Impose disciplinary sanctions for the knowing rule violation.
   2. B. Impose sanctions only after a separate criminal conviction.
   3. C. Defer any sanction until the RCA license is renewed.
   4. D. Treat the violation only as a facility survey deficiency.

   Answer: A

   Explanation: IC 25-1-9-4(a)(3) identifies when "a practitioner has knowingly violated any state statute or rule" regulating the profession as a ground for disciplinary sanctions after a hearing. The finding concerns the practitioner directly; it does not require a criminal conviction or renewal.

   Reference: Indiana Code 2026, IC 25-1-9 — IC 25-1-9-4(a)(3)

4. 4The Indiana board levies a civil penalty in an RCA matter for which the governing statute sets no maximum. Before any mitigating or aggravating adjustment, what amount does 840 IAC 1.1-1-1 set?

   1. A. $100
   2. B. $500
   3. C. $1,000
   4. D. $5,000

   Answer: C

   Explanation: 840 IAC 1.1-1-1(a) states, "If no statutory maximum is set, the fine or civil penalty is set at one thousand dollars ($1,000)." The $100 figure is the later adjustment floor, not this starting amount.

   Reference: 2026 Indiana Administrative Code, 840 IAC 1.1 — 840 IAC 1.1-1-1(a)

5. 5An RCA applicant's background check reveals a conviction of concern. How should the Indiana licensing board treat the conviction when deciding the application?

   1. A. Deny the application automatically because a concern was found.
   2. B. Consider statutory factors and possibly grant the license.
   3. C. Grant only a provisional license regardless of the factors.
   4. D. Ignore the conviction if the applicant passes the examination.

   Answer: B

   Explanation: 840 IAC 3-1-2 says an applicant with a conviction of concern "may still be granted a license" based on the criteria in IC 25-1-1.1-6(h). The board must assess the statutory criteria; discovery of a conviction is not itself an automatic bar.

   Reference: 2026 Indiana Administrative Code, 840 IAC 3 — 840 IAC 3-1-2

6. 6A residential care worker will perform a task with reasonably anticipated mucous-membrane contact with blood. Under 410 IAC 1-4-7, which circumstance triggers the facility's universal-precautions policy for that task?

   1. A. Reasonably anticipated contact with blood during the task.
   2. B. A confirmed infectious diagnosis for the resident involved.
   3. C. A positive laboratory result after the task is completed.
   4. D. A formal isolation order for the resident involved.

   Answer: A

   Explanation: 410 IAC 1-4-7 requires "the use of universal precautions" when covered duties involve "reasonably anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact" with blood or potentially infectious material. The trigger is expected exposure, without waiting for diagnosis, laboratory confirmation, or isolation.

   Reference: 2026 Indiana Administrative Code, 410 IAC 1 — 410 IAC 1-4-7(1)

7. 7When must a prospective resident be advised of the facility's resident-rights policy?

   1. A. After the first annual review
   2. B. Before admission
   3. C. Only after a grievance
   4. D. At discharge

   Answer: B

   Explanation: 410 IAC 16.2-5-1.2(a) states, "Each resident shall be advised of residents' rights prior to admission."

   Reference: Title 410, ARTICLE 16.2. HEALTH FACILITIES; LICENSING AND OPERATIONAL STANDARDS | IARP — 410 IAC 16.2-5-1.2(a)

8. 8A child will be admitted to an Indiana facility licensed to care for children. How many days before admission is the earliest the complete physical, TB skin test, dental examination, and capability evaluation may be performed under 410 IAC 16.2-6-2?

   1. A. 14 days before admission
   2. B. 30 days before admission
   3. C. 60 days before admission
   4. D. 90 days before admission

   Answer: B

   Explanation: 410 IAC 16.2-6-2(a) requires the bundle to be completed "on the day of admission or not earlier than thirty (30) days prior to admission." Thus 30 days is the furthest permissible lead time, while 14 days is also within the allowable window but is not the earliest permitted date.

   Reference: 2026 Indiana Administrative Code, 410 IAC 16.2 — 410 IAC 16.2-6-2(a)

9. 9A facility designates a staff member with two years of developmental-disability experience to run its resident program. The staff member is not a qualified intellectual disability professional (QIDP). What additional arrangement is required?

   1. A. The designee must have QIDP supervision or a consultant QIDP.
   2. B. The designee may run the program without professional oversight.
   3. C. The designee must first complete another two years of experience.
   4. D. The designee must obtain a facility administrator license instead.

   Answer: A

   Explanation: 410 IAC 16.2-7-4(a)(1) says that if the designated person does not qualify as a QIDP, "the designee must be supervised by a qualified intellectual disability professional" or the facility must have a consultant QIDP. Two years of experience qualifies the designee for designation but does not remove that oversight condition.

   Reference: 2026 Indiana Administrative Code, 410 IAC 16.2 — 410 IAC 16.2-7-4(a)(1)

10. 10An Indiana health-facility rule incorporates a federal regulation by reference with a specified edition date. Federal authorities later amend that regulation. Which text governs under 410 IAC 16.2-8-1?

    1. A. The federal edition specified in the Indiana incorporation.
    2. B. The newest federal edition available on the survey date.
    3. C. The newest federal edition available on the violation date.
    4. D. The federal edition most recently cited by the facility.

    Answer: A

    Explanation: 410 IAC 16.2-8-1(b) says incorporated federal rules "do not include any later amendments than those specified in the incorporated" citation. The version fixed by the Indiana rule therefore governs until Indiana changes its incorporation.

    Reference: 2026 Indiana Administrative Code, 410 IAC 16.2 — 410 IAC 16.2-8-1(b)