Free ACVP Phase II Anatomic Pathology Examination Practice Questions
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Sample Practice Questions
Try these 10 sample questions from the ACVP Phase II Anatomic Pathology Examination practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.
1A canine cutaneous round-cell tumor contains plasma-cell-like cells with numerous rounded eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions. Which term identifies the inclusions associated with Mott-cell differentiation?
- A. Russell bodies
- B. Dutcher bodies
- C. Auer rods
- D. Birbeck granules
Answer: A
Explanation: The case report states that Mott cells contain "cytoplasmic inclusions of accumulated non-secreted immunoglobulins called Russell bodies." The inclusions in these plasmacytoid tumor cells are therefore Russell bodies.
Reference: Cutaneous plasmacytoma with Mott cell differentiation in a dog — Discussion, paragraph beginning 'Mott cells are B-cell lineage'
2At necropsy, a dog's appendicular osteosarcoma has a telangiectatic pattern. Which gross cut-surface appearance is most characteristic of this pattern?
- A. Soft hemorrhagic tissue with little visible hard matrix
- B. Gray gritty tissue with extensive hard bony matrix
- C. Pale glistening tissue with broad cartilaginous matrix
- D. Dense white fibrous tissue with irregular mineralization
Answer: A
Explanation: In the original canine tumor series, "One tumor eventually diagnosed as a telangiectatic osteosarcoma was grossly composed only of soft tissue and hemorrhage with no obvious hard tissue." A soft, hemorrhagic cut surface is characteristic here.
Reference: Characterizing the Ablative Effects of Histotripsy for Osteosarcoma: In Vivo Study in Dogs — Results, gross tumor evaluation
3A dog has a MUM1-positive plasma-cell neoplasm with hyperglobulinemia. Which serum protein electrophoresis pattern would support neoplastic immunoglobulin production?
- A. Broad polyclonal gamma-globulin expansion
- B. Narrow monoclonal gamma-globulin expansion
- C. Selective albumin-fraction expansion
- D. Isolated alpha acute-phase protein expansion
Answer: B
Explanation: The original JVDI report of canine erythrophagocytic myeloma states, "Serum protein electrophoresis revealed a monoclonal or oligoclonal gammopathy." A discrete monoclonal gamma-globulin expansion supports neoplastic immunoglobulin production.
Reference: Erythrophagocytic multiple myeloma in a dog — Case report, initial serum biochemistry and protein electrophoresis
4An investigator compares Prx1-cre limb-bud mesenchyme sarcoma models and wants an average tumor latency near 19 weeks. Which tested genotype produced that latency?
- A. Heterozygous p53 loss with intact Rb
- B. Homozygous p53 loss with intact Rb
- C. Homozygous Rb loss with intact p53
- D. Homozygous loss of both p53 and Rb
Answer: D
Explanation: The original genetic study reports, "The mean time to tumor formation was 50 weeks for p53 deletion and 19 weeks for simultaneous Rb and p53 deletion". Simultaneous homozygous loss produced the shortest mean latency in this comparison.
Reference: Targeted mutation of p53 and Rb in mesenchymal cells of the limb bud produces sarcomas in mice — Results, simultaneous Rb and p53 deletion, tumor latency
5A canine cutaneous round-cell neoplasm has Mott-cell-like cytoplasmic inclusions. Which immunohistochemical label in a round-cell panel would support plasmacytoma over the lymphoid and melanocytic alternatives?
- A. CD3
- B. Melan A
- C. MUM1
- D. CD20
Answer: C
Explanation: The report states that "The tumor cells also displayed strongly positive nuclear staining for MUM1" and describes absent neoplastic-cell labeling for CD3, CD20, and melan A. Nuclear MUM1 supports plasma-cell differentiation in this setting.
Reference: Cutaneous plasmacytoma with Mott cell differentiation in a dog — Immunohistochemistry, paragraph beginning 'The tumor cells were positive for vimentin'
6A calf dies suddenly with Clostridium chauvoei infection. During necropsy of a swollen hindlimb, which cut-surface pattern best fits blackleg-associated myositis?
- A. Pale firm muscle crossed by dense fibrous bands
- B. Dark friable muscle containing small gas cavities
- C. Yellow soft muscle infiltrated by abundant adipose tissue
- D. Tan firm muscle containing scattered mineralized nodules
Answer: B
Explanation: In the original blackleg series, "Affected muscles were dry, friable, dark-red to black, and had multiple small cavities because of gas bubbles". Dark friable muscle with gas cavities is the corresponding gross lesion.
Reference: Pathology of blackleg in cattle in California, 1991–2015 — Results, gross anatomic lesions of superficial skeletal muscles
7A dog's splenic aspirate contains atypical round cells with deeply blue cytoplasm, eccentric nuclei, pale perinuclear halos, and occasional engulfed erythrocytes. Which cell lineage best fits this cytologic pattern?
- A. Plasma-cell lineage
- B. Histiocytic lineage
- C. Mast-cell lineage
- D. Melanocytic lineage
Answer: A
Explanation: The JVDI myeloma report describes "a highly erythrophagocytic population of neoplastic round cells, morphologically suggestive of plasma cells." The eccentric nuclei and perinuclear halos in this aspirate support a plasma-cell lineage.
Reference: Erythrophagocytic multiple myeloma in a dog — Abstract and case description, splenic fine-needle aspirate cytology
8H2-c-fosLTR transgenic mice develop osteosarcomas after c-fos overexpression in bone. Which cell lineage was identified as the transformed target in the original experiment?
- A. Osteoclast lineage
- B. Osteoblast lineage
- C. Chondrocyte lineage
- D. Marrow adipocyte lineage
Answer: B
Explanation: The original experiment concludes that "bone-forming osteoblastic cells were transformed by Fos." Osteoblast-lineage cells were the transformed targets in this model.
Reference: Osteoblasts are target cells for transformation in c-fos transgenic mice — Abstract, conclusion on transformed bone-forming cells
9A feedlot calf's lung has alveoli and bronchioles filled with eosinophilic strands and many degenerate neutrophils. Which morphologic diagnosis best describes this dominant lesion?
- A. Acute granulomatous bronchopneumonia
- B. Acute necrotizing embolic bronchopneumonia
- C. Acute fibrinosuppurative bronchopneumonia
- D. Acute lymphohistiocytic bronchopneumonia
Answer: C
Explanation: The study describes "Fibrin and degenerate leukocytes (oat cells) in alveoli" in calves with "fibrinosuppurative bronchopneumonia." The combination of fibrin and neutrophilic exudate in the airways and alveoli supports that morphologic diagnosis.
Reference: Bovine respiratory syncytial virus infection in feedlot cattle cases in Argentina — Discussion, microscopic findings paragraph following Figures 6–7
10On the cut surface of a calf brain, a cortical focus is abnormally soft but has not formed a cavity. Which gross descriptive term applies to this change?
- A. Malacia of cortex
- B. Cavitation of cortex
- C. Congestion of cortex
- D. Mineralization of cortex
Answer: A
Explanation: The original JVDI bovine herpesviral meningoencephalitis study defines "malacia as a gross lesion perceptible as a softening of the CNS tissue." The softened, uncavitated cortex is therefore malacic.
Reference: Bovine herpesviral meningoencephalitis: large case study and literature review — Discussion, definition used in gross lesion review
Topics in this practice bank
These topics describe the available practice for ACVP Phase II Anatomic Pathology Examination. Review the examination outline and its sources for scope and allocation details.
Task 1: Identify, characterize, and interpret microscopic conditions in domestic and non-domestic animals. (published approximate allocation: ~40%)
- Knowledge: Histopathologic features of conditions (e.g. osteoid in osteosarcoma, perpendicular kinetoplast in leishmaniasis, radiating acicular clefts in uric acid tophi)
- Knowledge: Microscopic descriptive terminology (e.g. Splendore-Hoeppli, flame figures, physaliferous cells, pluristratification)
- Knowledge: Morphologic diagnoses (e.g. acute versus chronic, ulcerative versus erosive, hyperplasia versus dysplasia versus neoplasia)
- Knowledge: Pathogenesis and expected progression of microscopic conditions
- Knowledge: Differential diagnoses and etiology of microscopic conditions (i.e. potential causes)
- Skill: Interpreting histologic features that define specific disease conditions to develop morphologic diagnoses, differential diagnoses, and potential causes
- Skill: Selecting and interpreting appropriate ancillary testing (e.g. IHC, PCR, clonality, special histochemical stains, electron microscopy) to differentiate microscopic conditions
- Skill: Identifying expected clinicopathologic (e.g. CBC, chemistry, urinalysis) and macroscopic abnormalities associated with microscopic conditions
Task 2: Identify, characterize, and interpret macroscopic conditions in domestic and non-domestic animals. (published approximate allocation: ~23%)
- Knowledge: Macroscopic features of conditions (e.g. patterns of pneumonias, hepatic necrosis, chronicity of disease, vascular or ischemic injuries)
- Knowledge: Macroscopic descriptive terminology (e.g. suppurative, umbilicated, malacia, miliary)
- Knowledge: Morphologic diagnoses (e.g. acute versus chronic, inflammation versus neoplasia, multifocal versus diffuse, tissue identification and distribution)
- Knowledge: Pathogenesis of macroscopic conditions
- Knowledge: Differential diagnoses and etiology of macroscopic conditions (i.e. potential causes and processes)
- Skill: Interpreting macroscopic features that define specific disease conditions to develop morphologic diagnoses, differential diagnoses, and potential causes
- Skill: Selecting and interpreting appropriate ancillary testing (e.g. microbiology, toxicology, molecular assays) to differentiate macroscopic conditions
- Skill: Identifying expected histopathologic findings, clinicopathologic correlates (e.g. cytology, CBC, chemistry, urinalysis), and other gross lesions (e.g. uremic pneumonitis in chronic renal disease) associated with macroscopic conditions.
Task 3: Interpret clinicopathologic data from domestic and non-domestic animals. (published approximate allocation: ~12%)
- Knowledge: Well-recognized clinicopathologic abnormalities using common laboratory assays (e.g. complete blood count, chemistry, urinalysis)
- Knowledge: Well-recognized cytologic features of conditions (e.g. negative staining bacilli in macrophages of mycobacteriosis; identifying viral inclusion bodies; classification of neoplasms as either epithelial, mesenchymal, or round cell)
- Skill: Recognizing the possible causes of laboratory abnormalities (e.g. monoclonal gammopathy in plasma cell neoplasia, lymphangiectasia causing hypoproteinemia, hypocholesterolemia, lymphopenia, and hypocalcemia)
- Skill: Interpreting clinicopathologic data to confirm a diagnosis, formulate differentials, and/or select ancillary diagnostic tests to confirm or exclude differential diagnoses
Task 4: Apply knowledge of pathology in domestic and non-domestic animals. (published approximate allocation: ~25%)
- Knowledge: Current veterinary anatomic pathology literature and textbooks
- Knowledge: Presentation, pathogenesis, progression, and diagnosis of well- recognized diseases (e.g. gross pathology, histology, clinical pathology, etiology)
- Knowledge: Newly described disease manifestations (e.g. gross pathology, histology, clinical pathology, etiology)
- Knowledge: well-recognized animal models of human disease (e.g. gross pathology, histology, clinical pathology, etiology, pathogenesis)
How to use these free practice questions
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These are independent study questions, not actual examination items. For examination requirements and official information, view ACVP Phase II Anatomic Pathology Examination details.